1. Change in stack size relative to current decision point (this gives the ubiquitous EV(fold) = 0 ).
2. Change in stack size relative to beginning of hand (EV(fold) = final stack - starting stack ).
3. Stack size at end of hand (EV(fold) = final stack ).
All of these referece points will produce different EVs.
But if we stick to one reference point for a given decision point, and compare the EVs of all the possible actions, the difference between EVs will remain the same.
That is a confusing sentence so an example will help:
HU $0.5/$1 NLHE
Starting stack sizes of SB and BB = $10
SB posts $0.5
BB posts $1
SB first to act with AA, has 2 options fold or shove.
BB calls a shove 30% of the time.
BB's calling range has 20% equity against AA.
Reference 1:
EV(fold) = $0 EV(shove) = $3
Reference 2:
EV(fold) = -$0.50 EV(shove) = $2.50
Reference 3:
EV(fold) = $9.50 EV(shove) = $12.50
When comparing the difference in EVs within a reference point, shoving is always expected to make $3 more than folding.
What confuses me is when I try to apply these different reference points to the indifference principle in a Kuhn poker situation.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kuhn_poker
Lets assume both p1 and p2 start with stacks s, then they both ante 1 chip.
Lets assume p1 always bets (1 chip) with K, always checks Q, and sometimes bluffs (1 chip) with J.
When p2 is deciding how often to bluff with a J after p1 checks, he wants to make p1 indifferent to folding and calling with bluff catchers (Q).
EV(p1 folds Q) = EV(p1 calls Q)
Reference 1:
0 = P(p2 has J)*P(p2 bets J)*(3) + P(p2 has K)*P(p2 bets K)*(-1)
0 = (1/2)*P(p2 bets J)*(3) + (1/2)*(1)*(-1)
0 = (3/2)*P(p2 bets J) - 1/2
P(p2 bets J) = 1/3
Reference 2:
EV(p1 folds Q) = (s-1) - s = -1
EV(p1 calls Q) = P(p2 has J)*P(p2 bets J)*(s + 2 - s) + P(p2 has K)*P(p2 bets K)*(s - 2 - s)
-1 = (1/2)*P(p2 bets J)*(2) + (1/2)*(1)*(-2)
-1 = P(p2 bets J) - 1
P(p2 bets J) = 0!?
Reference 3:
EV(p1 folds Q) = s-1
EV(p1 calls Q) = P(p2 has J)*P(p2 bets J)*(s + 2) + P(p2 has K)*P(p2 bets K)*(s - 2)
s-1 = (1/2)*P(p2 bets J)*(s+2) + (1/2)*(1)*(s-2)
P(p2 bets J) = s / (s+2) !?
Why are all of these answers different if I'm sticking to the same reference point throughout the calculation?Statistics: Posted by namnipeels — Tue May 30, 2023 9:31 pm
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